Question

in this excerpt, british historian a.j.p. taylor presents another point of view on appeasement.
can any sane man suppose... that other countries could have intervened by armed force in 1933 to overthrow hitler when he had come to power by constitutional means and was apparently supported by a large majority of the german people? the germans put hitler in power; they were the only ones who could turn him out. also the appeasers feared that the defeat of germany would be followed by a russian domination over much of europe.
source: a.j.p. taylor, the origins of the second world war, atheneum, 1965 (adapted)
what were two reasons used to explain why appeasement was logical at that time?

Explanation:

The text presents two reasons. First, Hitler came to power via constitutional means and had majority support, so only Germans could remove him. Second, "appeasers" feared Russian domination post - Hitler's defeat.

Answer:

1. Hitler came to power constitutionally and was supported by a large majority of Germans; only Germans could turn him out.
2. The “appeasers” feared that the defeat of Germany would lead to Russian domination over much of Europe.