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which of the following explains why \\(f(x) = \\log_{4}x\\) does not ha…

Question

which of the following explains why \\(f(x) = \log_{4}x\\) does not have a \\(y\\)-intercept? check all that apply.

there is no power of 4 that is equal to 0.
there is no power of 4 that is equal to 1.
its inverse does not have any \\(x\\)-intercepts.
its inverse does not have any \\(y\\)-intercepts.

Explanation:

Define the y-intercept condition

Using the Logarithmic Functions knowledge point

$$ LATEXBLOCK0 $$

Analyze the logarithmic expression

Using the Logarithmic Functions knowledge point

$$ LATEXBLOCK1 $$

Analyze the inverse function relationship

Using the Logarithmic and Exponential Inverses knowledge point

$$ LATEXBLOCK2 $$

Answer:

  • There is no power of 4 that is equal to 0. (Correct answer)
  • There is no power of 4 that is equal to 1.
  • Its inverse does not have any x-intercepts. (Correct answer)
  • Its inverse does not have any y-intercepts.