QUESTION IMAGE
Question
which of the following explains why \\(f(x) = \log_{4}x\\) does not have a \\(y\\)-intercept? check all that apply.
there is no power of 4 that is equal to 0.
there is no power of 4 that is equal to 1.
its inverse does not have any \\(x\\)-intercepts.
its inverse does not have any \\(y\\)-intercepts.
Define the y-intercept condition
Using the Logarithmic Functions knowledge point
$$
LATEXBLOCK0
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Analyze the logarithmic expression
Using the Logarithmic Functions knowledge point
$$
LATEXBLOCK1
$$
Analyze the inverse function relationship
Using the Logarithmic and Exponential Inverses knowledge point
$$
LATEXBLOCK2
$$
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- There is no power of 4 that is equal to 0. (Correct answer)
- There is no power of 4 that is equal to 1.
- Its inverse does not have any x-intercepts. (Correct answer)
- Its inverse does not have any y-intercepts.