Question

parent results not recorded. continue practising or switch user. which is the most accurate way to estimate 26% of 45? \\(\frac{2}{3} \times 44\\) \\(\frac{1}{4} \times 41\\) \\(\frac{2}{3} \times 41\\) \\(\frac{1}{4} \times 44\\)

Explanation:

Step1: Analyze 26% approximation

26% is close to 25% (which is $\frac{1}{4}$), and 45 is close to 44 (since 44 is a multiple of 4, easier for $\frac{1}{4}$ calculation).

Step2: Evaluate each option

• Option 1: $\frac{2}{3}\approx66.67\%$, not close to 26%.
• Option 2: 41 is not close to 45, and $\frac{1}{4}$ but base is wrong.
• Option 3: $\frac{2}{3}\approx66.67\%$, wrong percentage.
• Option 4: $\frac{1}{4}=25\%$ (close to 26%), 44 close to 45. So $\frac{1}{4}\times44$ is best.

Answer:

$\frac{1}{4} \times 44$ (the fourth option)