Question

which is the most accurate way to estimate 24% of 47?\
\\(\frac{1}{4} \times 48\\)\
\\(\frac{2}{3} \times 48\\)\
\\(\frac{1}{2} \times 48\\)\
\\(\frac{3}{4} \times 48\\)

Explanation:

Step1: Analyze 24% approximation

24% is close to 25% (which is $\frac{1}{4}$) or 20% (but $\frac{1}{4}$ is 25%, closer to 24% than others here). Also, 47 is approximated to 48 for simplicity.

Step2: Compare options

• $\frac{1}{4}×48$: $\frac{1}{4}=25\%$, close to 24%. $25\%$ of $48$ is $12$, and $24\%$ of $47$ is close to that.
• $\frac{2}{3}×48$: $\frac{2}{3}\approx66.67\%$, not close to 24%.
• $\frac{1}{2}×48$: $50\%$, not close to 24%.
• $\frac{3}{4}×48$: $75\%$, not close to 24%.

Answer:

$\frac{1}{4} \times 48$ (the first option)