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Question
is the measure of ∠1 equal to the measure of ∠2? why? yes, because they intercept the same arc no, because the sides of ∠2 are longer no, because they intercept the circle at different points
According to the inscribed - angle theorem, inscribed angles that intercept the same arc are equal. The measure of an inscribed angle is half the measure of the arc it intercepts, and since ∠1 and ∠2 intercept the same arc, their measures are equal. The length of the sides of an angle and the points of intersection with the circle do not affect the measure of the angle.
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yes, because they intercept the same arc