Question

explain how the domain and range of a one-to-one function and its inverse are related.
part 1 of 2
the domain of a one-to-one function is the same as the range of its inverse.
part: 1 / 2
part 2 of 2
the range of a one-to-one function is the same as the select of its inverse.
options: domain, range

Explanation:

For a one - to - one function \(y = f(x)\) and its inverse \(y=f^{-1}(x)\), by the definition of inverse functions, if \(f(a)=b\), then \(f^{-1}(b) = a\). The domain of \(f\) is the set of all \(a\) values, and the range of \(f\) is the set of all \(b\) values. For the inverse function \(f^{-1}\), the domain is the set of all \(b\) values (which is the range of \(f\)) and the range is the set of all \(a\) values (which is the domain of \(f\)). So, the range of a one - to - one function is the same as the domain of its inverse.

Answer:

domain