Question

using the first corollary to the inscribed angle theorem
is the measure of ∠1 equal to the measure of ∠2? why?
no, because the sides of ∠2 are longer
yes, because they intercept the same arc

Explanation:

According to the Inscribed Angle Theorem, inscribed angles that intercept the same arc are equal. The length of the sides of an angle does not affect its measure.

Answer:

yes, because they intercept the same arc