Question

parent results not recorded. continue practising or switch user. which is the most accurate way to estimate 66% of 52? \\(\frac{1}{2} \times 51\\) \\(\frac{2}{3} \times 51\\) \\(\frac{1}{3} \times 51\\) \\(\frac{3}{4} \times 51\\)

Explanation:

Step1: Convert 66% to fraction

66% is approximately $\frac{2}{3}$ (since $\frac{2}{3} \approx 0.6667$ which is close to 0.66). Also, 52 is approximated to 51 for simplicity in the options.

Step2: Analyze each option

• $\frac{1}{2}×51$: $\frac{1}{2}=0.5$, which is far from 0.66.
• $\frac{2}{3}×51$: $\frac{2}{3}\approx0.6667$, close to 0.66.
• $\frac{1}{3}×51$: $\frac{1}{3}\approx0.333$, far from 0.66.
• $\frac{3}{4}×51$: $\frac{3}{4}=0.75$, further from 0.66 than $\frac{2}{3}$.

Answer:

$\frac{2}{3} \times 51$ (the second option)