Question

what is the statement that would need to be made for #2 based on the reflexive property?
given: ( overline{jk}=overline{lk};overline{jm}=overline{lm} )
prove: ( \triangle kjm=\triangle klm )

option 1
( jkcong lk )

option 2
( kmcong mk )

Explanation:

Step1: Recall the reflexive property

The reflexive property states that a segment is congruent to itself.

Step2: Analyze Option 1

$JK\cong LK$ is given in the problem statement (Statement 1), not a result of the reflexive property.

Step3: Analyze Option 2

For $\triangle KJM$ and $\triangle KLM$, $KM$ is a common side. By the reflexive property of congruence, $KM\cong MK$ (since it's the same segment). This is what would be used for Statement 2 (the reflexive property step in the proof of $\triangle KJM\cong\triangle KLM$ by SSS, as we already have $JK = LK$ and $JM=LM$ given).

Answer:

Option 2.