Question

select the correct answer from each drop - down menu. consider $\triangle efg$ and $\triangle hij$. triangle hij is \underline{\quad\quad} triangle efg. since triangle efg uses \underline{\quad\quad} to map onto triangle hij, the triangles \underline{\quad\quad}.

Explanation:

Step1: Analyze Triangle Markings

In $\triangle EFG$, side $EF$ has three marks, $FG$ has two marks, and $EG$ has one mark. In $\triangle HIJ$, side $HJ$ has three marks, $JI$ has two marks, and $HI$ has one mark.

Step2: Determine Congruence/Transformation

The corresponding sides (by mark count) are equal. So, $\triangle HIJ$ is a congruent copy (via rotation/reflection) of $\triangle EFG$. The triangles are congruent, and a rigid transformation (like rotation) can map $\triangle EFG$ onto $\triangle HIJ$.

Answer:

1. Triangle HIJ is congruent to triangle EFG.
2. Since triangle EFG uses a rigid transformation (rotation/reflection) to map onto triangle HIJ, the triangles are congruent.

(Note: Exact dropdown options depend on standard choices, but the logic is about congruence via rigid transformations.)