QUESTION IMAGE
Question
if ( f(x)=\frac{2 sin x}{1+cos x} ), then ( f^{prime}(x)= ) ( f^{prime}(2)= )
Step1: Apply the quotient rule
The quotient rule states that if $y = \frac{u}{v}$, then $y'=\frac{u'v - uv'}{v^{2}}$. Here, $u = 2\sin x$, $u'=2\cos x$, $v = 1+\cos x$, $v'=-\sin x$.
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Step2: Use the trigonometric identity $\sin^{2}x+\cos^{2}x = 1$
Substitute $\sin^{2}x+\cos^{2}x = 1$ into the numerator:
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Step3: Evaluate $f'(x)$ at $x = 2$
Substitute $x = 2$ into $f'(x)$: $f'(2)=\frac{2}{1+\cos2}$
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$f'(x)=\frac{2}{1 + \cos x}$; $f'(2)=\frac{2}{1+\cos2}$