Question

is f = 1 a solution to the inequality below?
f ≥ 2
yes
no

Explanation:

Step1: Understand the inequality

The inequality is \( f \geq 2 \), which means \( f \) should be greater than or equal to 2.

Step2: Check the value of \( f = 1 \)

We need to see if 1 is greater than or equal to 2. Since \( 1<2 \), 1 does not satisfy the inequality \( f \geq 2 \).

Answer:

no