Question

question 32 (mandatory) (1 point) how did neville chamberlain presume that the munich agreement would satisfy hitler’s ambitions? a) by allying all of western europe against the soviet union b) by demonstrating that the western democracies were prepared to go to war to prevent further german aggression c) by constructing a new system of financial and industrial agreements with germany to produce economic recovery without rearmament d) by allowing hitler to unify all ethnic germans in one state

Explanation:

The Munich Agreement and Chamberlain's policy of appeasement aimed to satisfy Hitler's ambitions by allowing the unification of ethnic Germans (like in the Sudetenland) into one state, hoping this would stop further expansion. Option d matches this context. Other options: a is incorrect (no alliance vs USSR here), b is wrong (appeasement was to avoid war, not demonstrate willingness), c is unrelated to the Munich Agreement's goal.

Answer:

d) by allowing Hitler to unify all ethnic Germans in one state