Question

a male client with meningitis is prescribed cefotaxime iv and asks the nurse why he cannot receive an oral drug, such as cefaclor or cefadroxil, that he has taken before for infections. how should the nurse respond when considering the action of cephalosporins?

a cefadroxil is usually prescribed when the iv is discontinued.

b cefotaxime provides therapeutic cns concentrations.

c cefazolin is another iv antibiotic that can be prescribed.

d cefaclor is a good alternative to suggest to the healthcare provider.

Explanation:

Meningitis involves the central nervous system (CNS). Cefotaxime, when given intravenously, can achieve therapeutic concentrations in the CNS, which is crucial for treating meningitis. Oral cephalosporins like cefadroxil may not reach sufficient CNS levels. Option A is incorrect as the timing of cefadroxil isn't the main reason. Option C is about another IV antibiotic, not addressing why oral isn't used. Option D is about suggesting an alternative, not explaining the current choice. So the correct reasoning is about CNS concentrations of cefotaxime.

Answer:

B. Cefotaxime provides therapeutic CNS concentrations.