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given: \\( \\overline { a b } \\cong \\overline { b c } \\), \\( \\over…

Question

given: \\( \overline { a b } \cong \overline { b c } \\), \\( \overline { d e } \\) bisects \\( \overline { a b } \\) and \\( \overline { d e } \\) bisects \\( \overline { b c } \\).
prove: \\( \overline { b d } \cong \overline { b e } \\).
note: quadrilateral properties are not permitted in this proof.
1 \\( \overline { a b } \cong \overline { b c } \\) \\( \overline { d e } \\) bisects \\( \overline { a b } \\) \\( \overline { d e } \\) bisects \\( \overline { b c } \\)
2 \\( b d = \frac { 1 } { 2 } b a \\)
3 \\( b e = \frac { 1 } { 2 } b c \\)

Explanation:

Step1: Use the definition of a bisector

Since \( \overline{DE} \) bisects \( \overline{AB} \), by the definition of a bisector, \( BD=\frac{1}{2}BA \).
Since \( \overline{DE} \) bisects \( \overline{BC} \), by the definition of a bisector, \( BE = \frac{1}{2}BC \).

Step2: Use the property of congruent segments

Given \( \overline{AB}\cong\overline{BC} \), then \( AB = BC \) (congruent segments have equal lengths).

Step3: Substitute \( AB\) with \( BC\)

Substitute \( AB\) with \( BC\) in the equation \( BD=\frac{1}{2}BA \). We get \( BD=\frac{1}{2}BC \).
Since \( BE=\frac{1}{2}BC \) and \( BD=\frac{1}{2}BC \), then \( BD = BE \).

Step4: Use the definition of congruent segments

Since \( BD = BE \), by the definition of congruent segments (\( \overline{XY}\cong\overline{ZW} \) if \( XY = ZW \)), we have \( \overline{BD}\cong\overline{BE} \).

Answer:

\( \overline{BD}\cong\overline{BE} \) is proved.