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Question
explain how the domain and range of a one-to-one function and its inverse are related.
part: 0 / 2
part 1 of 2
the domain of a one-to-one function is the same as the select of its inverse.
options: domain, range
For a one - to - one function \( f \) and its inverse \( f^{-1} \), by the definition of inverse functions, if \( y = f(x) \), then \( x = f^{-1}(y) \). The domain of \( f \) is the set of all \( x \) values for which \( f(x) \) is defined, and the range of \( f \) is the set of all \( y \) values (outputs) of \( f \). For the inverse function \( f^{-1} \), the domain of \( f^{-1} \) is the set of all \( y \) values (which are the outputs of \( f \), i.e., the range of \( f \)) and the range of \( f^{-1} \) is the set of all \( x \) values (which are the inputs of \( f \), i.e., the domain of \( f \)). So the domain of a one - to - one function is the same as the range of its inverse.
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